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Messianic prophecies contained in the Gospel of Matthew

 Exposing the first Messianic prophecy:

In the first chapter, after talking about the angel appearing to Joseph the carpenter (in a dream) to confirm the honor of his fiancΓ©e after he found her pregnant by the Holy Spirit, the following is stated:
22 Now all this took place to fulfill what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying :
23 Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel, which means: God with us.
So we find here that the writer of the so-called Gospel of Matthew fabricated this text from the Old Testament as a prophecy about the Messiah that was fulfilled. In the margin of the text in the copy (New Testament - Dar Al-Mashreq Publications - Beirut - 19th Edition) we see written: Isaiah 7/14, meaning that this prophecy is found in the Book of Isaiah, Chapter 7, Verse 14. Is this true?

Look at what is stated in Isaiah 7:10
Then the Lord spoke again to Ahaz, saying:
11 Ask for a sign for yourself from the Lord your God. Deepen your request or lift it up
. 12 But Ahaz said, I will not ask, nor will I test the Lord.
13 And he said, Hear now, O house of David, is it a small thing for you to weary men, that you weary my God also
? 14 But the Lord himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
15 He shall eat butter and honey, when he shall know to reject evil and choose
good. 16 For before the child shall know to reject evil and choose good, the land of whose two kings you fear shall be forsaken.
The great scandal is that the text that was fabricated in Matthew as a Messianic prophecy has absolutely nothing to do with Jesus, peace be upon him. For example, whoever reviews Anthony Fikry’s interpretation of verse 14, sees that the appearance of Immanuel will be before the death of the two kings, Pekah and Rezin. And before the child reaches the age of 3, they will die! And that the Virgin is most likely the wife of the Prophet and was called the Virgin!
And since Anthony thought like other followers of Paul, slaves in their religion and their world. He could not get out of what was mentioned in Matthew even if it was a clear lie and slander. He completed the interpretation in the following way: " But the Lord himself gives you a sign indicating a greater event than what is mentioned..." Then he continued that it also indicates the birth of Jesus. Just so that he does not deviate from the text of "Matthew"! Even if it contradicts logic and history! What the writer of "Matthew" wrote must be true by force!

The funny thing about the subject is that in the interpretation of verses 15 and 16, Fikri says: “And the two kings actually died 3 years ago,” meaning that the time of prophecy ended. And the miracle child Emmanuel at that time was supposed to have been born and started eating butter and honey! What is also funny about the subject is that Jesus, who they say is Emmanuel, was not called by this name during his presence on earth by anyone in any gospel, whether canonical, non-canonical, or secret, nor even in any book of Christian history and heritage: not his mother, nor Joseph, nor the apostles.

How could Jesus be the subject of the prophecy if it did not apply to him in name or time?!



Exposing the Second Messianic Prophecy:
In the second chapter, after talking about the escape of Joseph, his fiancΓ©e, and the child Jesus to Egypt, the following is mentioned:
14 So he rose up, took the child and his mother by night, and departed to Egypt.
15And he remained there until the death of Herod, that it might be fulfilled which the Lord had spoken by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt I called my son.
Here we find that the writer of the so-called Gospel of Matthew fabricated this verse from the Old Testament as a prophecy about the Messiah that was fulfilled. In the margin of the text in the copy (New Testament - Dar Al-Mashreq Publications - Beirut - 19th Edition) we see written: Hosea 11/1, meaning that this prophecy is found in the Book of Hosea, Chapter 11, Verse 1. Is this true?
Look at what is said in Hosea 11:
1 When Israel was a child, I loved him; And out of Egypt I called my son.
The biggest scandal is that the text that was fabricated in Matthew as a messianic prophecy has absolutely no relation to Jesus, peace be upon him. Anyone who reviews the text will find that the Son of God here is Israel (meaning the people of Israel) whom God wanted to free from the slavery of the Pharaoh of Egypt. The naming of Israel as the “Son of God” in the Bible came very clearly in Exodus 4-22:
Then you shall say to Pharaoh, “Thus says the Lord: Israel is my firstborn son.”
Antonius Fikry acknowledged in his interpretation that the number in Hosea is talking about the people of Israel.
But as we said before, since Anthony thought like other followers of Paul, slaves in their religion and their world. He could not get out of what was mentioned in Matthew even if it was a clear lie and slander. He completed the interpretation in the following way: " But we understand from (Matthew 2:15) that this is a prophecy about the Messiah..." Then he continued in a very comical and scandalous way that it also speaks about Jesus. So that the writer of Matthew would be believed at any cost!




Exposing the Third Messianic Prophecy:
In Chapter 2, after talking about Herod killing the children of Bethlehem, it says the following:
17 Then was fulfilled what was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying,
18 A voice was heard in Ramah, mourning, weeping, and great wailing: Rachel weeping for her children, and would not be comforted, because they were no more.
Here we find that the writer of the so-called Gospel of Matthew fabricated this text from the Old Testament as a prophecy about the Messiah that was fulfilled. In the margin of the text in the copy (New Testament - Dar Al-Mashreq Publications - Beirut - 19th Edition) we see written: Jeremiah 31/15, meaning that this prophecy is found in the Book of Jeremiah, Chapter 31, Verse 14. Is this true?
Look at what is said in Jeremiah 31:14
And I will satisfy the soul of the priests with fatness, And my people shall be satisfied with my goodness, saith the Lord
. 15 Thus saith the Lord: A voice is heard in Ramah, mourning, and bitter weeping: Rachel weeping for her children, And refuseth to be comforted for her children, Because they are no more.
16 Thus saith the Lord: Keep thy voice from weeping, And thine eyes from tears: For there shall be a reward for thy work, saith the Lord. And they shall return from the land of the enemy.
The biggest scandal is that the text that was fabricated in Matthew as a Messianic prophecy has absolutely no relation to Jesus, peace be upon him. Anyone who examines verse 16 in the chapter of Jeremiah will find a divine promise to Rachel that her children will return from the land of the enemy!
So what are you crying about then?!
Review the interpretations of Antonius Fikry and Tadros Yaqoub, and you will find that the talk is about the captivity of the Jews to Babylon. Fikry says literally:
In verses (15-17) , it appears that Ramah was the place where Nebuzaradan gathered the captives in preparation for transporting them to Babylon, and from there Jeremiah returned. It is as if Rachel here is crying over her children who went into captivity and does not want to be comforted because they are not present = but rather in captivity.
And Tadros Yaqoub says:
Jeremiah imagines the spirit of Rachel, the wife of Jacob and the mother of Joseph and Benjamin, weeping for her children (the tribes of Ephraim, Manasseh, and Benjamin) who occupied a huge area of ​​the kingdom, as she sees them being deported from the Promised Land into captivity.
Then the two of them say, think and study Jacob that the Gospel of Matthew mentioned such and such without providing any logical connection or rational explanation. Is that reasonable? What do the texts of the captivity of the Jews have to do with Herod’s alleged massacre?!


Exposing the Fourth Messianic Prophecy:
Concerning what is stated in Matthew 2:23:
And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, saying, He shall be called a Nazarene.
The great scandal here is that there is nowhere in the Old Testament of the Christians and Jews, that he is called a Nazarene, and there is not even anything close to that! This is what has puzzled Christian scholars and priests until now, and their books of interpretation have been at a loss as to how to interpret this text to cover up this scandal, and they have not succeeded!
Simple Christians read the Gospel of Matthew and are amazed and believe...
and the series of lies continues...
Exposing the Fifth Messianic Prophecy:

In the third chapter, after beginning to talk about John the Baptist, the following is stated:
3 For this is he about whom it was spoken by the prophet Isaiah, saying: The voice of one crying in the wilderness, “Prepare ye the way of the Lord; make his paths straight.”
Here we find that the writer of the so-called Gospel of Matthew fabricated this text from the Old Testament as a prophecy about John the Baptist that was fulfilled. In the margin of the text in the copy (New Testament - Dar Al-Mashreq Publications - Beirut - 19th Edition), we see written: Isaiah 40/3, meaning that this prophecy is found in the Book of Isaiah, Chapter 40, Verse 3. Is this true?
Look at what is stated in Isaiah 40:
1 Comfort, comfort my people, says your God.
2 Speak kindly to Jerusalem, and cry to her, that her warfare is accomplished, that her iniquity is pardoned, that she has received from the Lord’s hand double for all her sins.
3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness, “Prepare ye the way of the Lord.” Arise in the desert as a way for
their god. The greatest scandal is that the text that was fabricated in Matthew as a messianic prophecy has absolutely nothing to do with Jesus, peace be upon him. Anyone who reviews the interpretation of Tadros Yacoub the Maltese will see that this voice is a heavenly voice that the Prophet Isaiah heard announcing the return of the Jews who were taken captive from Babylon!
I do not understand how he (Tadros Yacoub) and Antonius Fikry continued to apply the prophecy by force to John the Baptist!! Just so that they would not attack the Gospel of Matthew! Even at the expense of reality.


5 Then the devil took him to the holy city, and set him on the pinnacle of the temple. 6

And he said to him, If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down; for it is written , He will give his angels charge concerning you, and in their hands they will bear you up, lest you strike your foot against a stone. And in the margin of the text in the copy (New Testament - Dar Al-Mashreq Publications - Beirut - 19th Edition) we see written Psalm 91/11-12, meaning that this prophecy is found in Psalm 91. Is this true? Look at what is mentioned in Psalm 91: 9 , For you said, “You, O Lord, are my refuge.” The Most High has made your dwelling place. 10 No evil shall befall you, nor shall any plague come near your tent. 11 For he will give his angels charge over you, To guard you in all your ways. 12 They will bear you up in their hands, Lest you strike your foot against a stone. The great scandal is that the psalm text here, like all the psalms, is a chant or a prayer attributed to David, peace be upon him. So if David is calling on his Lord, what does Jesus have to do with that? Where are the Jesusian allusions in this text? Or is the point that a single lie, whether more or less, makes no difference?





Exposing the Seventh Messianic Prophecy:
In Matthew 12, after talking about Christ healing the sick, it says the following:
17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Isaiah the prophet, saying :
18 “ Behold my servant whom I have chosen, my beloved in whom my soul delights. I will put my Spirit upon him, and he will declare justice to the Gentiles .
19 He will not quarrel or cry out, nor will anyone hear his voice in the streets .
20 A bruised reed he will not break, and smoking flax he will not quench, until he brings out justice to victory .
21 And in his name shall the Gentiles hope.”
Here we find that the writer of the so-called Gospel of Matthew fabricated this text from the Old Testament as a prophecy about the Messiah that was fulfilled. In the margin of the text in the copy (New Testament - Dar Al-Mashreq Publications - Beirut - 19th Edition) we see written: Isaiah 42: 1-4, meaning that this prophecy is found in the Book of Isaiah, Chapter 42. Is this true?
The fact is that the basic prophecy says, “Behold, my servant,” not “Behold, my servant!” And that prophecy speaks of an Arab prophet who destroys idols, wages wars, and declares God as a mighty one!! So what is the relationship between Jesus and this Arab prophet who lives in the desert?! See my dc for isaiah 42




Exposing the eighth Messianic prophecy:

In chapter 13, Jesus began to speak to them in parables, and the writer of Matthew saw that a prophecy had been fulfilled, and said:
35 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things hidden from the foundation of the world
. Christians say that this prophecy was mentioned in Psalm 78, verse 2. Is this true?
This is the text of the psalm:
1 A psalm of Asaph. Hear, O my people, to my law; incline your ear to the words of my mouth .
2 I will open my mouth in a parable; I will utter riddles of old,
3 which we have heard and known, and our fathers have told us.
4 We will not hide them from their children to the next generation, declaring the praises of the Lord, and his power, and the wonders that he has done!
Whoever reads the interpretation of Antonius Fikry understands that the speaker of this phrase is most likely the Prophet David, and the Psalms are known to be prayers and hymns of the Prophet David according to Christians and Jews. And the speaker in them is the Prophet David, peace be upon him. So what is the relationship between Jesus and that?!


 

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