response to those who derived the Trinity from the word “Elohim” , 3 responses

 Christians claim that the word "Elohim" refers to the Trinity, because it is a plural, and yet it is used for the one God, and therefore there must be plurality and unity at the same time, and in this way they claim that the word "Elohim" refers to the Trinity.

But let us review the words of Christian references, and we will see that scholars who are familiar with the Hebrew language declare that the word does not refer to the Trinity from near or far. The




first source: Gesenius' Hebrew - Chaldee Lexicon to the Old Testament



says on page 49: elohim , /*%-!, ( "God /gods") is sometimes used in a numerically plural sense for angels , judges, and false gods . It also says:

“The plural of majesty [for elohim] occurs, on the other hand, more than two thousand times.” And that elohim when used in that sense “occurs in a [numerically] singular sense” and is “constr[ued] with a verb... and adjective in the singular.”

(On the other hand, the plural of magnification "in relation to the word Elohim " occurs more than two thousand times, and when the word Elohim is used in this sense "i.e. in the sense of the numerical singular" and is explained by a verb and its description comes in the singular form)




Source 2:

Gesenius - Kautzsch's Hebrew Grammar, pages 398 and 399 The plural of magnification or magnification .... is one of the forms of the abstract plural, since it gathers the multiple qualities that belong to the idea, next to a secondary meaning that strengthens the original idea, and thus it is close to the plural of magnification .... So, especially "Elohim" ... "God" (distinguished from "the gods" in the plural form, Exodus 12 - 12 .. etc.) ..... What proves to us specifically that the language has completely rejected the idea of ​​the existence of a numerical plural in the word "Elohim" (when it refers at any time to one God) is that it is almost invariably linked to a singular quality. Third source: The Catholic Encyclopedia says: http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05393a.htm Grammarians call it a plural of majesty or rank, or of abstraction, or of magnitude (Gesenius, Grammatik, 27th ed., nn. 124 g, 132 h). Fourth source: Page 159 of the reference:

Nelson's Expository Dictionary of the Old Testament , describes elohim :

"The common plural form `elohim,' a plural of majesty ." - Unger and White, 1980, p. 159

(The plural form “Elohim” is the plural of exaltation )





Fifth source: International Standard Bible


Encyclopedia



http://www.internationalstandardbible.com/G/god-names-of.html



1. ‘Elohim:
The first form of the Divine name in the Bible is 'Elohim, ordinarily translated "God" (Genesis 1:1). This is the most frequently used name in the Old Testament, as its equivalent theos, is in the New Testament, occurring in Gen alone approximately 200 t. It is one of a group of kindred words, to which also belong 'El and 'Eloah. (1) Its form is plural, but the construction is uniformly singular, i.e. it governs a singular verb or adjective, unless used of heathen divinities (Psalms 96:5; 97:7). It is characteristic of Hebrew that extension, magnitude and dignity, as well as actual multiplicity, are expressed by the plural. It is not reasonable, therefore, to assume that plurality of form indicates primitive



Semitic polytheism. On the contrary, historic Hebrew is unquestionably and uniformly monotheistic.




Source Six Today's Dictionary of the Bible page 208 :

"Applied to the one true God, it is the result in the Hebrew idiom of a plural magnitude or majesty. When applied to the heathen gods, angels, or judges..., Elohim is plural in sense as well as form." - p. 208.

He says about the word "Elohim":

"It is said of the one true God, it is in Hebrew expression a plural of magnitude or of glorification. When used of the pagan gods, angels, or judges...., the word "Elohim" is plural in meaning as it is in form."





Seventh source:


The scholar Aaron Ember says in his book The pluralis intensivus in Hebrew, pages 17 and 18: The plural expression of the gods and the prerogatives of God: Many theories have been advanced to explain the use of the plural form "Elohim" to express the God of Israel. The least logical of these theories is the view held by ancient theologians beginning with "Peter Lombard" (twelfth century), that this plural form refers to the Trinity. Some modern scholars consider it a remnant of an early belief in polytheism. This view has been advanced by Baudissin, Meyer, Hermann Schultz, Ewald, Renan, W. Robertson Smith, and others. As to how this view explains the process of the transformation of the original numerical plural into one used to express a single God, Robertson Smith gives the following explanation in his book (The religion of the semites) p. 445: (The word Elohim in a certain place originally meant all the inhabitants therein, who were all regarded as an infinite group of indistinguishable beings, and it is natural that a transition to the stage of using the plural to denote the singular should occur after this, as soon as the concept of the infinite gives way to the concept of the single God of the sacred.) Linguistic usage, however, does not support this theory. The language of the Old Testament has abandoned the idea of ​​a plural in the word Elohim (when it refers to the God of Israel), and this is especially proven by the fact that this word is almost invariably associated with a singular verbal predicate and a singular adjective. Eighth source: The Young's Concise Critical Commentary , page 1:

"Heb. elohim, a plural noun... it seems to point out a superabundance of qualities in the Divine Being rather than a plurality of persons.... It is found almost invariably accompanied by a verb in the singular number."

(The Hebrew word “Elohim” is a collective noun... It seems to indicate the abundance of attributes in the divine being rather than the plurality of persons ... It is almost invariably found with a singular verb.)






Ninth source: The New International

Dictionary of New Testament Theology , page 67, Volume Two:

" Elohim , though plural in form, is seldom used in the OT as such (ie `gods'). Even a single heathen god can be designated with the plural elohim (eg Jdg. 11:24; 1 Ki. 11:5; 2 Ki. 1:2). word, is God.” - p. 67, Vol. 2.

The word "Elohim," though plural, is rarely used in the Old Testament as such. Even a single pagan god may be described in the plural form "Elohim" (e.g., Judges 11-24; 1 Kings 11-5; 2 Kings 1-2). In Israel the plural was understood to mean the plural of perfection, God being the God who in truth, and in the fullest sense of the word, is God.





Source 10: The NIV Study Bible

says in a footnote on Genesis 1-1, page 6:

"This use of the plural expresses intensification rather than number and has been called the plural of majesty, or of potentiality." – p. 6, Zondervan Publ., 1985.

This use of the plural expresses strengthening more than it expresses number, and it has been called the plural of glorification or strengthening.




Source Eleven:

New American Bible (St. Joseph ed.) tells us in its "Bible Dictionary" in the appendix:

:

"ELOHIM. Ordinary Hebrew word for God. It is the plural of majesty." – Catholic Book Publishing Co., 1970

Elohim is the usual Hebrew word for God. It is a plural of majesty.






Source 12:



Smith's Dictionary says:

http://www.biblestudytools.com/dictionaries/smiths-bible-dictionary/god.html


The plural form of Elohim has given rise to much discussion. The fanciful idea that it referred to the trinity of persons in the Godhead hardly finds now a supporter among scholars. It is either



what grammarians call the plural of majesty , or it denotes the fullness of divine strength, the sum of the powers displayed by God .




The Thirteenth Source:




The Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics, Volume 24, Page 458, by James Hastings, says: It is difficult to expect that the Old Testament would establish the doctrine of the Trinity , if the belief in the Trinity is (as we have said) founded on the belief in the incarnation of God in Christ and on the experience of spiritual salvation and renewal through Christ. It is a frivolous or false interpretation to discover that doctrine in the plural form "Elohim" of the name of God , or in the recorded story of the appearance of three angels to Abraham, or even in the ter sanctus in the prophecies of Isaiah. Nevertheless it is allowed that the Old Testament ideas of the Word of God and the Wisdom of God are shadows of this doctrine, recognizing the reality of the multiple self-revelation activity in one God. Source Fourteen: The Arabic Christian Electronic Encyclopedia: http://www.albishara.org/dictionary.php?op=bGV0dGVyPU5USXoma3dvcmQ9TVE9PQ.. &libro=371bce7dc83817b73893bcdeed13799b5 In the Old Testament, we should consider Elohim as an amplification of the word and as raising a specific person to a comprehensive level. This is called the plural of majesty and glory. Source Fifteen: When Critics Ask - A Popular Handbook on Bible Difficulties However, students of Hebrew grammar will point out that the plural pronoun "us" is simply what the Hebrew plural noun "Elohim" translates as "God" requires (so God "Elohim - plural" said, "Let us make" - plural "man in our image" - plural"). Consequently, they claim that this text should not be used to prove the doctrine of the Trinity . In fact, the Qur’an, which denies the existence of more than one person in God, uses the “plural” to refer to God, which shows that the Near Eastern use of the “plural” does not necessarily mean more than one person. Others assert that the plural is a style of speech called the “plural of honor.” Source 16:



























































Or consider the doctrine of the Trinity. Although it is sometimes claimed to be clearly found in the OT, one has to wonder why there is no hint of a Jewish understanding of this doctrine in the intertestamental period. And any exegesis of OT texts that implies that the human authors were trinitarian is both naïve and indefensible


. Or look, for example, at the doctrine of the Trinity. Although it is sometimes claimed that it is clearly present in the Old Testament, we have the right to be surprised at the absence of any hint in Jewish thought about this doctrine in the period between the two testaments, and any interpretation of the texts of the Old Testament that indicates that its authors believed in the Trinity is a naive interpretation that cannot be defended . _____ Note No. 1: For the sake of academic honesty: Most of the effort expended in this article is not mine, but rather its author on the following website: http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/10/elohim-plural-god.html , but I followed the references he mentioned, and documented his words either with pictures from the reference or with a link to it with two differences.. First: The words of the scholar Aaron Ember in the seventh source, I documented them from another reference by the same scholar other than the one written by the author of the article, and I put the pictures from this reference.. Second: There are some references for which I did not find a source to present to you from On the Internet, which is what I mentioned in the fourth, sixth, eighth, ninth, tenth and eleventh sources. Note No. 2: The remaining sources are not found in the article referred to in Note No. 1.




If the word Elohim indicates the Trinity, would God have used it in the Holy Bible to refer to Moses, peace be upon him?
[ Al-Fandik ][ Ex.7.1 ][ And the Lord said to Moses, “See, I have made you a God to Pharaoh, and Aaron your brother shall be your prophet.”]
The Hebrew text hebrew says
Exo 7:1 And the Lord said to Moses , “ Behold , I have made you a God to Pharaoh, and Aaron your brother shall be your prophet .” And for every seeker of truth, please listen to it from the Hebrew website [ MEDIA]http://sheekh-3arb.org/ALSAQR-ELSALAFI/sound/hebrew/ex7-1.mp3[/MEDIA] http://sheekh-3arb.org/ALSAQR-ELSALA...brew/ex7-1.mp3 The truth is that using this word as evidence for the divinity of Christ destroys the divinity of the Father and the Holy Spirit with them as well, because they will be forced to make Moses a trinity as well. There is another point that the word Elohim was given to the pagan goddess Ashtoreth, and this means that the trinity is a pagan doctrine that was transferred by an agent to Christianity. I want to point out another very dangerous point, which is that the disciples of Christ, according to the Holy Book, did not know anything called the trinity, nor did they even think about it for a moment, nor did they believe in it. The evidence for that is what Father Mina Gad Girgis said in his book My Church: Doctrine and Faith. This is a very dangerous admission, which is that the disciples did not know the trinity, nor did it even cross any of their minds as a mere idea! Father Mina Gad Girgis said that after the Holy Spirit descended upon the disciples on the day of Pentecost, they understood the Trinity. The priest cited the text of the First Epistle of John 5-7 as evidence of that. So what would the priest say if we now prove the inauthenticity of this passage in the New Testament?? There is no doubt that the matter will remain as it was originally, which is that the disciples did not know the Trinity nor did they believe in it one day. Here is a continuous stream of confessions by Christian scholars that this paragraph is not part of the New Testament and that it is a later addition added by the faithful copyists of the Word of God, the book The Cultural Background of the Bible by Craig S. Keener. This is a very serious confession by the Jesuit fathers in charge of the Jesuit monastic translation , as they said in the introduction to the Epistles of John, and this was also confirmed by Dr. William Eddy in his interpretation known as The Great Treasure in the Interpretation of the Gospel. As for the editors of the Encyclopedia of the Bible, they excelled in showing this truth. As for the servant of the Lord, Fadi, he excelled, benefited, approved, and settled on adding this paragraph in order to support the doctrine of the Trinity in the New Testament. He said in the book Introduction to the Science of Textual Criticism, “Thus Fadi loved the New Testament, so he proved that it was distorted so that everyone who believes in it will perish and have eternal fire.” Therefore, the interpreter William Kelly had the right to say that this text is distorted and added, and even indicates the ignorance of the one who added it to the New Testament. It is very beautiful that the interpreter Professor William Kelly confirms that this paragraph indicates ignorance, and it was also the right of the House of God website to leave it. The interpretation of this paragraph is final, and therefore every believing Christian must completely abandon this paragraph because it is not authentic, but rather indicates ignorance.


And after that, he must abandon belief in this evil trinity with which they insult the Lord of the Worlds without knowledge, understanding, or any text that says so.

1- The meaning of (Eloah) is power or strength, and it came in the plural form (Elohim) for glorification, or to make human thoughts imagine all powers in the oneness of the One with the best qualities and great actions, the Eternal Living One. So they confined to that greatest name all powers, agents and movements by which the creations were first formed, and by which they are now controlled and preserved until the Day of Judgment. So they were attributed in the Old Testament to (Elohim), one God, to make clear that the agent is one and his action is one.

2- What is close to the previous meaning is the reference to it in the incident of making the calf and the Jews worshipping it
:

(a) In Exodus 32:4, the writer says about the calf, his gods, in the plural form, although it is one calf:
“So he took it from their hand, and fashioned it with a chisel, and made it a molten calf. And they said, ‘These are your gods, O Israel, which brought you up out of the land of Egypt.’”
(b) In Exodus 32:8, he says:
“They made for themselves a molten calf, and bowed themselves down to it, and sacrificed to it, and said, ‘These are your gods, O Israel, which brought you up out of the land of Egypt.’”
(c) In Exodus 32:31, he says:
“Then Moses returned to the Lord and said, ‘Ah, this people have sinned a great sin, for they have made for themselves gods of gold.’”

From the above texts it is clear that the golden calf that was made for the children of Israel is undoubtedly one by consensus, by consensus of the Jews, Christians and Muslims, and according to the texts of the Old and New Testaments, and according to the Holy Quran, and by virtue of historical references, but that one calf was expressed in the plural because the plural is for glorification, or to lead human thoughts to imagine that all the great divine powers are in that one calf.

3 - It has been proven that the woman who was summoning spirits among the Jewish people said to King Saul when she saw the spirit of the Prophet Samuel - as mentioned in the First Book of Samuel, p. 28, verse 13 -
((I saw gods ascending from the earth)) and she meant by that the spirit of the Prophet Samuel, and she expressed it with the word gods and in the plural. Therefore King Saul answered her, saying as expressed in verse 14 of the same chapter:
“What is his form?” And she said, “An old man coming up, covered with a robe.” And Saul knew that it was Samuel, and he fell on his face to the ground and worshiped.”

The Jewish Rabbi Tovia Singer says:
It is a grave mistake for the missionaries to translate the name “Elohim” as representing a kind of totality in relation to the Lordship. Otherwise, how can the missionaries also explain to us the word corresponding to Elohim in Exodus 7:1, which refers to Moses? “And the Lord said to Moses, ‘See, I have made you a God (Elohim) to Pharaoh.’” (See the Hebrew text) .

Do the missionaries then claim that there are multiple individuals in Moses? Was Moses a trinity of persons?

From this, it becomes clear, dear reader, that the Holy Bible may use the plural form instead of the singular form for the sake of glorification and magnification. This technical usage in the language is known in many other languages, such as the Arabic language. God Almighty says in the Holy Quran:

(( And none believed in Moses except a few of his people, for fear of Pharaoh and his chiefs, lest he should persecute them. And indeed, Pharaoh was exalted in the land, and indeed, he was among the transgressors. )) So

He expressed “their chiefs” in the plural form instead of “Pharaoh’s chiefs” in the singular form.

I said:
Luke said at the beginning of his Gospel: ((Since many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning...))

So Luke mentioned himself in the plural form for the sake of glorification, which is more appropriate and fitting in relation to God, since He is truly the Great One.

Finally, the Christian Encyclopedia, under the heading of His Gods, states the following:
The Hebrew name Elohim is generally considered to be the plural of "majesty or greatness," the common name for "God." The plural seems to mean "perfection and abundance of powers," and indicates the fullness of the attributes of power attributed to the divine being. Accordingly, it is usually translated in the singular form (of God) when referring to the God of Israel. When referring to the gods of other nations, the word is translated in the plural form "gods." The pagan nations usually had a group of gods, and among the Semites it was customary for each nation or tribe to have its own god. Even if there were several tribes, families, or groups in one nation, each had its own god. Thus among the Semitic nations a nation could have many gods and thus worship several gods. Among the other nations, the Aryans, the Hamites, and others, there were always a number of gods, sometimes a large number, and the Old Testament contains many references to these gods.

Proof of the invalidity of using the word “Elohim” to prove the Trinity

In a desperate attempt by missionaries to prove the existence of the Trinity in the Old Testament, we find them citing the word (Elohim), which is a plural form mentioned in the Old Testament. This is a summary of their statement, followed by the response, with God’s help and guidance.

The strength of the evidence for the multiplicity of hypostases in the one essence of God was demonstrated through the use of the name of God “Elohim” in the plural form in the Old Testament. However, His description sometimes comes in the singular form, and sometimes in the plural form, as does the verb attributed to Him and the pronoun that refers to Him.


In response, we say, with God’s guidance:

First: The word “Elohim” in the plural form means gods and does not mean hypostases, and we are talking about hypostases and not gods... Considering it a plural ultimately leads us to the multiplicity of gods and not the multiplicity of hypostases... (and there is no evidence that they are three, perhaps two, perhaps five or ten), but even if they were three, they are three gods and not three hypostases, and it is impossible to prove that the Elohim here is a plural for only three.

And if Elohim means three hypostases in one God or any number of hypostases in one God, then how do we interpret this text in Psalms 45:6 and (( Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever. A scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom. You love righteousness and hate iniquity; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness above your companions. ))
In the sixth verse, Your throne, O Elohim, meaning the one being addressed is Elohim, and the address resumes in the next verse, saying, I love righteousness, and therefore Elohim has anointed you!!
The multi-hypostasis delusion anointed another multi-hypostasis delusion and this is a completely illogical statement....and needs explanation.

See also Hebrews 1:8: (( But concerning the Son, Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever; a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your kingdom. 9 You love righteousness and hate iniquity; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness more than your partners. ))

The only logical explanation is that calling Jesus the delusion was to prove that he is greater and of a higher rank than the rest of the humans or partners as the text calls them, just like Moses, as we will see shortly. ( See VI ).

This text is in Genesis 42:30: “ The man, the lord of the land, spoke harshly to us, and took us for spies of the land .”
The intended meaning is Joseph, and the word translated “lord of the land” is a plural word in Hebrew, and this is clear for emphasis.

Second: From the dictionary:

Definition
1. (plural)
a. rulers, judges
b. divine ones
c. angels
d. gods
2. (plural intensive - singular meaning)
a. god, goddess
b. godlike one
c. works or special possessions of God
d. the (true) God
e. God

As you can see, there is a plural meaning and a plural meaning of greatness, but it is singular in meaning. This is what the dictionary says.

Third: Why did the word “Elohim” disappear from the New Testament ? You may say that it is Hebrew and the New Testament is Greek, but do we have a word in the New Testament that can be plural in singularity and singular in plural, as some try to do with the word “Elohim”?

In other words, does the word Theos, which means god, carry any meaning of multiple hypostases....!!!!

Jesus himself says in Mark 12:29: “ Then Jesus answered him, ‘The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord. ’”
Of course, the words here are in Greek, and Jesus is quoting from Deuteronomy 6:4: “ Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord .”

The problem is that in the Hebrew text the word “Elohim” was used, and the writer of the Gospel of Mark used the singular “theos” and did not use the plural. If the multiplicity of hypostases was the intended meaning, it should have been mentioned in Greek as well. All we can say is that the writer understood the word “Elohim” to mean one singular God, so he mentioned it in Greek as well.

Fourth: In Judges 16:23 : And the lords of the Philistines gathered together to offer a great sacrifice to Dagon their god, and to rejoice, and said, “Our god has delivered Samson our enemy into our hand. ”

Dagon, the god of the Philistines, is named in the original text as Elohim and is mentioned twice, and the verb accompanying it is singular. Is this Dagon also composed of three persons?? The text contains only one false god as is clear..... and the following texts are all false gods called the illusion:

Judges 8:33: (( And it came to pass after the death of Gideon, that the children of Israel turned and played the whore after the Baals, and made Baal-berith their god. ))
Judges 11:24: (( Shall you not possess what Chemosh your god gives you to inherit? And all whom the Lord our God has cast out before us, them we will possess. ))

And also Judges 16:23 the god Dagon and the kings 11:5 Ashtoreth and 2 Kings 1:3 and 2 Kings 19:37 and let us not forget the golden calf in Exodus 32, which was called Elohim twice in the first verse and in verse 32.

All the previous examples were for a single God only, without internal hypostases.

Here is an interesting note in 1 Kings 5:11: “ So Solomon went after Ashtoreth the goddess of the Sidonians, and after Milcom the abomination of the Ammonites. ”
Ashtoreth is a feminine deity, yet she took the title of the masculine plural elohim, which completely invalidates the use of this word to prove any multiplicity of hypostases, whether three, more, or less. And God alone is our helper.

Fifth: The singular of Elohim is translated as God in Nehemiah 9:17 (( But they refused to listen, and would not remember Your wonders which You did among them, and they stiffened their necks. And when they rebelled, they appointed a ruler to return to their bondage. But You are a God who forgives, and gracious, and merciful, slow to anger, and abounding in steadfast love, and You have not forsaken them. ))'

If the word “Elohim” means three hypostases, then its singular form means only one hypostasis
. Does this apply to this text? Which hypostasis is meant, and why???

Also, the Hebrew word “God” is translated many times. See Genesis 18:14: “ And Melchizedek king of Salem brought out bread and wine. And he was a priest of God Most High. ”

God Most High is a translation of the Hebrew word “God.” Is it possible that this is only one person according to the common logic used to prove the Trinity?
Whoever believes in this should explain to us in logical words that make sense how he justifies this??

Sixth: Moses himself is called Elohim in Exodus 4:16 and 7:1: (( And he shall speak for you to the people; he shall be a mouthpiece to you, and you shall be a God to them.)) ((And the LORD said to Moses, “See, I have made you a God to Pharaoh. ”))

Here we find that Moses is called Elohim twice. Is Moses also polytheistic? The imperative to abbreviate Elohim is correct, plural, but here it is used for a singular without hypostases or otherwise.

In the King James Version, it adds a word instead of which is not found in the original.

And he shall be the spokesman unto the people: and he shall be, even he shall be to thee instead of a mouth, and you shall be to him instead of God

And look at this text in the Book of Deuteronomy:
(( I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brethren, and I will put My words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him. And it shall come to pass, that whoever does not listen to My words which he speaks in My name, I will require it of him. ))

Of course, we will not talk here about the prophet who is like the prophet , but from the Christian concept here, Moses is like Christ, and Moses is called the deity. So is Christ also called the deity??? And in this case, would He also be composed of several hypostases?!

The following text in Acts supports what I say: 3:22
(( For Moses said to the fathers, “The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your brothers. You must listen to him in all that he says to you.” ))

According to this text, Moses, who is called a phantom, is like Christ. Is Christ also a phantom?

Moses is nothing more than a person, and the plural here is for emphasis, which is what is called in English (plural intensive)

. The word phantom was used with Moses to indicate that the power that will be given to him is stronger than the power of Pharaoh in his tyranny, oppression, and claim to divinity.


Seventh: Some references support what we say about the word “Elohim” being a word of glorification and not a regular plural:

(Hertz, The Pentateuch and Haftorahs).
“Elohim” is a plural word usually used in Hebrew to indicate the abundance of strength and glory of a singular.

Flanders, Cresson; Introduction to the Bible).
The construction of the word “Elohim” is plural and in Hebrew it is used to indicate glorification and sanctification.

Smith's Bible Dictionary
The plural form of the word elohim has given rise to much discussion, and the fanciful idea that the word elohim refers to the Trinity finds no support now among scholars. The word is either a plural of majesty or to indicate a greater power than any other power.

Lexical Aids to the Old Testament
Elohim is a plural word, but it is used for both the singular and the plural, and in the plural it refers to rulers or judges of a sacred nature, as in Exodus 21:60, or pagan gods, as in Exodus 18:11 and Psalms 86:8, and perhaps angels, as in Psalms 8:5

and 97:7. It is also translated in the Septuagint,

which is supported by what is mentioned in Hebrews 2:7: " You have made him a little lower than the angels; with glory and honor you have crowned him, and have set him over the works of your hands." ) )
As for the singular meaning, it is used to indicate God or divinity, such as 1 Samuel 5:7 and 2 Kings 18:34, and it is used to indicate a man who has a status like God, such as Exodus 7:1, and to mean God in Deuteronomy 7:9 and many other verses, and it always takes a singular verb, and therefore there is no plural in the divine entity that can be inferred from the mere fact that the word is plural.

There are many references to prove this point.


Eighth: Quick points and details are available. There are many Hebrew words in the plural form, but they have a singular meaning, such as the word life, the word water, the word face, and the word heaven, all of which end with ya and meem, but they are singular in usage.

Jacob wrestled with the god. Was this wrestling with one hypostasis or with the three hypostases combined?
Genesis 32:28: ((Then he said, "Your name shall no longer be called Jacob, but Israel, because you have struggled with God and with men, and have prevailed . "
He struggled with the deity. Is this deity composed of three persons? Is the one who wrestled with Jacob the incarnation of the three persons or the incarnation of the Father only?

In Malachi 2:10: (( Is there not one Father of us all? Is not one God who created us? ))
The Father here is referred to as the one deity, meaning that the Father is the one God. Doesn't this text only prove the extent of the arbitrariness and delusions of those who try to prove that deity means trinity? Whoever believes this should respond to this text.....